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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)6 g z# ~% ^9 R5 l
9 i5 [9 j2 n' k! z7 CProof: ; S) S% ^" W4 V2 u/ S3 x
Let n >1 be an integer
. x ^* f, P S$ p: x( R! pBasis: (n=2)9 ~* N6 o1 @( {; L2 [$ g- l5 i
2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 35 V2 ?: D& ?% I( ^/ C) @% ]3 H
" O9 ?) o' P, c5 X0 X7 Y
Induction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that
0 E$ M5 M2 n) X. s! q& Y2 O$ t K^3 – K can by divided by 3.* c6 v3 S5 _, J% h$ t9 h
- T$ ~0 D- p6 ?( C1 L+ {* t% Z9 ?Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3
! u+ \& Z1 W2 asince we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem
4 T i9 P5 w6 v; s& zThen we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)
3 X# z- R6 k( }% j4 V = K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K
' j4 D' X9 P: _1 g ] = ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)' D1 a+ b/ y7 J9 v/ G" k
= ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
1 V* M7 z& ]" w$ R# }by Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0% }9 G% p B5 v7 m+ A; a
So we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K): ~# _7 k0 p" L
= 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)
1 o2 [/ s) s. n- j; I = 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3
8 j0 L( s- V8 Y$ q( I# \; p& Y) K; k4 l
Conclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
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! N4 q" f' K. y3 i4 _8 m% C, I[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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