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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)+ N( {' z' e# X
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Proof: 0 a; G7 V q- v$ K6 b$ |1 c8 ~
Let n >1 be an integer 6 |9 e5 r+ h- h! \
Basis: (n=2)
5 w$ k! O) P! m8 m% U- b0 {7 C7 j/ } 2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 30 W' l( u3 B2 n0 E5 G0 ?( F
0 |4 ]4 r/ O) ?6 G9 E. iInduction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that: a+ z$ m; ]: I( C4 ]3 k
K^3 – K can by divided by 3.: H1 V# F- X+ C: w
% T7 r0 F8 T; l6 _6 r4 CNow, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3" X. z* H( L1 [2 i( _* I/ ]
since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem$ E7 ^6 {$ y( a" `# N1 a
Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)
" `& H0 Y6 }5 P' \1 Z = K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K8 \4 D& W& T% H( @4 c1 n5 ^1 X( s
= ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)
5 j8 g1 j6 D0 Y = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
! c! }5 g4 D6 a* pby Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0
/ N4 h) s: i5 y2 Q8 [2 U) ?- bSo we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
' I4 N d- j# {5 A% N/ f = 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)9 r8 V9 C$ }- M- B( O2 ]4 s- ]
= 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3) |7 X' i* M* ^3 @0 O" h- z+ L
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Conclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.# N0 e! x* h8 `( Z) B0 j
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[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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