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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n); W# Q8 K8 R! w! O: ]( I3 G8 K
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Proof:
. l5 Q2 g4 U: B4 ~( t# s9 v7 PLet n >1 be an integer 4 p) a% p3 T, u& Q$ F0 G1 p
Basis: (n=2)9 l* u1 y& V: i. _5 _$ D
2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3
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$ ?8 [0 l7 i$ p. o1 Q" NInduction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that& }, `3 N" V9 l, R! u% H
K^3 – K can by divided by 3.6 b2 h1 V: n! u1 C1 O. ?: k
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Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3
' g/ M5 J, {7 m' ^5 L% v6 msince we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem
9 B. N6 f; M9 |9 \Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)- I: P# h2 m2 X7 d& P9 ^+ d
= K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K
8 v5 r( x/ z# d' C: F8 s = ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)
w+ {& w, u; X& }9 x+ x& { = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)* v4 _5 J% S* U3 G9 g7 `3 K' H
by Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0
! e4 Y$ \! Y$ T2 M) nSo we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)8 K4 o8 X' m L6 s5 p( b6 z3 z: J
= 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)
% F' Z" j) a4 w$ x0 M = 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3! _! n; L9 |0 j q5 w
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Conclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
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[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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