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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)1 o4 A- B1 Z+ ^1 A
* N+ l' r% _6 ]4 Y, O2 zProof: 9 p% P1 v9 q& A% }5 }# \' d
Let n >1 be an integer 3 |0 r7 `5 M$ a/ {8 p& I% ?% D
Basis: (n=2)
+ e$ Y% I6 H' a6 S' B* n 2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3
5 o. M @1 d m; F, l$ p0 G% K
% s; L' U$ t8 b0 Q: i' }; ]! pInduction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that7 Z& E9 l0 x; f
K^3 – K can by divided by 3.
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) F$ p" I- u' n: k/ d" A) u2 [Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3: Q# {" U" f) W3 o
since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem
m+ t' i/ @. uThen we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)
% _: Z! F( p5 B( ~* R4 t = K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K
# s; [# h, m6 L7 g& e x* \ = ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)
& e% i0 j5 L8 y$ q = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
2 S1 N8 O& n) s6 k" R+ z; Tby Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0" a$ ~3 F7 D9 i# e: M
So we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)' }( U/ D5 V2 } C5 Z
= 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)
, W- I5 j/ ]2 }# ^ = 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3) G2 B- A _8 x
0 @- }& p* ?& j, Y8 ZConclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
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8 `" I8 `% u$ n. { R, Y* W[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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