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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n): l! Q& W5 G6 N7 @3 D2 T7 b2 e2 ^
! E; g6 T' g8 L8 c! hProof: % e( W" Y; |& [* w9 g! f6 U
Let n >1 be an integer , O; B% o/ |# L7 u! d4 r
Basis: (n=2)
. S" I6 Q- b- X2 S 2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 37 q4 I; l( w; x# m
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Induction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that
" R0 i" o+ @. A+ R K^3 – K can by divided by 3.
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Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3+ u1 u2 W. X! l. S
since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem
1 C4 G" s2 s7 o. \! K0 M! dThen we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)1 f/ N# i( S# V" q+ _/ w, M
= K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K
~1 i$ S4 M( z9 Z. `" [ = ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K); z1 j6 d" @9 d3 c1 O! @
= ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
3 ~6 ]2 p7 d# C- H! J y G4 p3 {by Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0
) \9 E- P, q; v) e" r3 {So we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)6 A( D y6 D2 O& F, U/ u! @0 K; U9 t: k
= 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)+ U. o) ?# ]6 x* e( C
= 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3, E( Z: P9 r( G" S! m
! Y5 c* w# R0 F+ Z7 H7 yConclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
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[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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