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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)2 Q" ~! b! @5 P
- H4 X$ J6 s, o% xProof:
9 W9 ?0 O% J( f! a- PLet n >1 be an integer
7 R3 c9 C7 K. T0 ^3 z* sBasis: (n=2)
7 G0 j0 d; {) i* Q+ p6 [ 2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 30 W8 ?4 ~: I. r; u5 O( r3 X7 t
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Induction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that
3 o1 y9 G. w7 Q7 t/ @9 q5 q# j' C K^3 – K can by divided by 3.' d' } y6 ^( ~8 i4 z* `
$ |- D$ M$ E* g* [: DNow, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3 P0 r* h3 I- L# d
since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem
5 g% g. ^: A" b, g0 Q! J; q KThen we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)
: \ W! _) J8 d# ?! H3 S = K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K
6 y0 p& z0 X% _7 |, O& R3 M: r = ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)
: z9 x- @. R3 D9 c8 V0 r = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
5 N& E9 b4 \$ f) l% X% cby Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0
4 U w4 U7 n; d. m' @So we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
- j7 w! `/ ]# X = 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)! q$ I9 |- s) S
= 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 39 b) ^* G! E# N( } F$ D$ M
- G4 U* A8 K6 }0 ^! q' fConclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.3 F- s; F0 w( ^7 H
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[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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