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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)) _6 ]. K. m1 F) s
8 S! O: s$ y2 O) T. B1 iProof: : W$ Q L9 C3 a' G/ ~% C
Let n >1 be an integer
/ _. e+ m8 m9 R( j, j' `. l4 ~Basis: (n=2)
' m$ V0 C) y, J. w 2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 37 N9 v: N) S5 d" H B: ], ]
* Q5 u: k6 ?3 dInduction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that
% w: K3 i0 @/ q) o. w( e6 A K^3 – K can by divided by 3.* Z& G" s+ N x
1 f+ b# e+ ]9 h: ?" |Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3; r `4 L/ y9 t( c$ d3 e# k$ r
since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem$ L. W+ e# }5 t- X& Y7 M
Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)
* q+ p* E# ]2 K = K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K
& v5 y+ U0 j) M) T, k1 B7 c = ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)& x- M W7 U- }; b7 b. Q
= ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)" r3 X- P! i* H$ c! [8 `, o
by Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>02 J9 q7 M! {- o0 I. O
So we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
. H r- O! c/ g6 h = 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)- J T1 S: Z6 V" V
= 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 35 I, b1 x' ]1 z! f3 l/ y
% b( ?7 \7 \$ e `Conclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.; m9 @$ R/ z# g% F. q$ t
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[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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