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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)
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Proof: " {' i( I( q0 E
Let n >1 be an integer
) \& T% r& ~: [" GBasis: (n=2)
2 ` h8 f( U: z8 v' a; [2 M4 V" _ 2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3
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9 f7 Y; x. O7 k TInduction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that3 }7 F, U4 z8 Q$ M8 e
K^3 – K can by divided by 3.6 P, K, t( l0 E+ ~! h5 I) M2 o
2 y. i! k3 ~# S9 dNow, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3
4 O5 G4 z. j" Y ]) h) j2 msince we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem
9 \+ ~; u1 Q* \, g" w7 X9 gThen we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)
9 Q) a7 x' W) Z = K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K
9 C) D5 D1 m% u6 r6 T: j ~- j9 M [8 Y = ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)
, L! |. @4 `: B- E+ K0 N = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)" O g5 j- Q- ]+ z( F) N6 Y2 v* [
by Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0
9 V$ Q' p, P+ MSo we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)0 r- x1 d0 |4 `0 A( C# q
= 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)" R$ \6 x8 |# s3 }
= 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 31 B, T/ o0 B" A* N, e- `
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Conclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.; a6 F& R0 k* I; N# M3 D! G/ r
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[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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