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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)
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Proof:
( l' k' J+ z6 F% w/ ^* ~Let n >1 be an integer
8 J: N3 _9 D; K# N& uBasis: (n=2)
5 N ^: X Y5 J$ h3 E4 a0 V) J 2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 30 f, O% l7 ^: w* b
/ g+ ^' k( q! X$ b( _Induction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that/ S. |+ I, K K/ ?8 L9 h
K^3 – K can by divided by 3.
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! P: @! d( L+ C/ c F& TNow, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3
# p! F# E5 v3 H8 o* Y8 H8 xsince we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem5 \* \' L3 [4 [3 x+ v
Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)
1 O: B& m4 b6 w/ D) s9 E = K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K5 M5 E! z( N+ w% |* Y) [2 i; x) x+ m
= ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)1 v2 f. d8 O9 Z( D; ~8 t A% [
= ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)% \% D1 H: }# ]# \
by Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0& w. x+ r5 P! H6 Q: E6 d4 s" }& [
So we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
2 F; Z2 m% e- p5 e5 U$ \0 F- l = 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)
' o# Q R# E9 W V! S$ j* c& J = 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3% X9 V9 c* K, \1 E
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Conclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.# ^- Q' {& @% \/ W
9 e" x- V! H4 F0 o; \[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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