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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)* d0 K- k3 Z( l0 M1 `0 T5 G
3 G% b3 a% f2 H' g7 S, ]8 lProof:
5 A& P8 k8 V; S; C0 ?9 ZLet n >1 be an integer 8 ~+ n% s$ }/ n- f6 I& o
Basis: (n=2)3 Q( R6 ~# X! g: Z/ a
2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3
) `2 d& j( E5 d c, f3 Z% v2 k) a$ j
Induction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that- @' Y8 }( \' Z0 }) N
K^3 – K can by divided by 3.
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Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3, D4 O1 f1 m4 s5 d7 o
since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem) U4 R5 v4 @" o! f/ B0 I; e7 y5 q/ Y( n# h
Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)0 m+ n/ y& A% V6 s+ \
= K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K0 h+ U! _6 u6 [) h' \1 [
= ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)
$ l) @# r, v4 o) ^1 `1 A: h- d& Z = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
; p$ I3 z0 g j7 ?( |4 K% j8 y/ ~by Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0
- q) u+ e# f9 N" tSo we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
3 r2 Q8 J( o) w. h3 v = 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)- E' @- n* l/ o7 ^) g/ ~
= 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 30 o$ m4 k- ]6 i5 h5 Y4 f) B
3 ?: E: J0 a, L6 H. }Conclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.# Y, w# Z2 `3 g8 |" F
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[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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