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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)
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Proof:
$ a: h" x' t+ pLet n >1 be an integer 2 l. y Y; Z/ U8 X% K' P# x B3 Q
Basis: (n=2)
2 z1 Z% I8 b4 B+ W/ g4 O 2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3! d) [' k) U0 Q& g+ Y
! C( b5 \) b. E& _. wInduction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that
3 J7 C; J' }1 e5 i0 x: ]0 I3 G K^3 – K can by divided by 3.
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Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 37 A+ K7 u) n$ q# ~5 D
since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem) V& A8 G( O! [4 T$ o- J
Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1), ~3 d* b+ y( }% U# N
= K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K: V4 M4 V1 B) P
= ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)" F& q- t" D* A5 V4 w
= ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)$ y; j/ V" ]6 U& K& D9 _& X
by Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0: J- l4 r! R u: B! d. s
So we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
0 ?, T& j5 I, f5 j8 o: k = 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)
. f1 [8 s' h2 B* I0 D" d = 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3
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8 ^! m0 Z0 a% q* S j4 N. pConclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.5 d! U3 t/ W- ]+ Y% \3 }5 u
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[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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