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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)1 h O. E, i4 i/ T6 Q! V
$ T- F3 X1 s6 C( h8 T. DProof:
7 [2 a0 x4 Y. C, R. _! r4 k/ _6 SLet n >1 be an integer
0 ] I0 M. n. Z6 ]) o0 SBasis: (n=2)
/ }9 ?: j) d+ b3 U" D- g 2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3
7 Z$ H; k& u6 |/ a2 n: A$ R
9 ~( n' C; d6 [ ~Induction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that7 }6 d/ y: _( b% H/ p4 m5 \3 }
K^3 – K can by divided by 3.
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# H% R# a" U. v( P! i' S% INow, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3& }8 p: H6 p- l+ G0 m- @. t
since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem0 I; r! ]7 g5 N- Z
Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)! j# {' p3 A0 r: _/ G
= K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K0 ]5 s. {9 L# U7 u! i
= ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)
7 E; l1 h! L8 O } = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
# B) @9 N" P" a# Hby Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0
1 W3 e& I. w& b+ P% c9 q- B$ X' \So we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)% O6 O/ e/ T, s
= 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)
0 ]( w: T7 G+ I# o- E = 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 30 \! L* P, h; [9 f' H
) R }* s: t8 iConclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
, T' R' i- o- }- X: {$ |& {- k0 W/ ^7 N9 j. y0 } h& O+ D5 U
[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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