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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)
2 k1 N* k7 N& ^/ I: ]: [, L- E# V d2 n
Proof:
4 l( r6 X9 l; |Let n >1 be an integer
1 ?2 ?2 _6 Q4 t+ i) {Basis: (n=2)
7 m9 V. c# e6 M& e& I! ?% N' `) ^ 2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3
9 x$ g0 u% R9 g( u" x2 v- p8 h' T4 B% ~- F/ s
Induction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that1 _9 m& j, M: b! b2 f! P& B
K^3 – K can by divided by 3.; {0 {# w. l% A# C5 R
2 h- U! [4 P) B/ }1 [) U
Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3( J% ^% Q( b; R6 ?, [
since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem6 Z' i! h% a! v7 ~0 W- a) {
Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)
1 x" E. m4 u: u = K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K
- @' h! G9 F9 T = ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)0 }, \4 [! |4 |( {
= ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
; u7 G, ]$ N' kby Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0
^, y/ ~8 c, A/ P( fSo we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
1 S: W/ B1 E9 E% [ = 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K), V0 i/ B A0 m1 |: V' L+ n
= 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3
: M2 E" Y+ W, v/ h1 ]$ ?. d
3 w/ Y/ @. {2 O3 {7 NConclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.3 C- P$ z2 U3 z* V( ?) B" q
9 E* u& q6 K6 P3 Y/ P[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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