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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)
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Proof: 4 e9 u8 l1 B1 O/ M
Let n >1 be an integer
6 {7 W) V/ B5 U( c4 {% S' BBasis: (n=2)
0 k7 i7 w w5 T7 R: Q9 Z 2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3' o4 r- i8 }& U2 u! W( I' s
- R5 c9 L/ f0 S x0 Y, K) eInduction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that
% j, e- M$ y$ y6 y+ M" X$ m K^3 – K can by divided by 3.* k5 l! s7 Z, g4 ?% e% x0 U
+ H! d+ W& f( y6 KNow, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3
4 o& t {$ [/ \( p( `7 asince we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem7 @1 o1 c( `6 ]
Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)1 e5 s3 @- M) A, }3 _
= K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K
8 ~2 y; @# t. _- |( v C* \ = ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)+ b0 E9 r; {8 z( x% _0 S
= ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
2 |0 t$ h+ V5 e jby Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0
9 U' C, R( L% gSo we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
. F5 M; p* d L; h0 W* z! i = 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)2 _4 B; v. s& Y3 P0 B4 L$ V* D) I
= 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3
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Conclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
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0 t- B4 d0 G1 n( f" W( w[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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