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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)+ n, ^6 `. ^& ^% ?
9 A0 S$ C7 L7 X1 N. T/ rProof: 5 ^( S) Z4 ]- j' d' w
Let n >1 be an integer - I* U" _6 }; L
Basis: (n=2)
/ ~1 H9 F9 c; \0 z! y" G- d 2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3- ?( |+ _! V* I0 f/ z: P
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Induction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that
5 I/ ?% ]) k& J K^3 – K can by divided by 3.
6 I8 v4 y2 e9 X; F+ _& f# j
$ d/ v2 X; x# f; x) M" INow, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3
! [! E& S5 j& P" U! s7 ~0 tsince we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem
3 _8 ], M" k( X; J& D5 a) uThen we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)$ G6 K$ S0 H6 ^; l1 @) ^
= K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K7 W. _3 b- g3 o/ h% | l
= ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)
- g b* ]. V* e0 z( ]* u = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)# s1 V) V! G N' S$ C
by Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0) i. _% {8 X$ y. e8 e2 z# Z L
So we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)( O& Y4 n2 Y C( O' J
= 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K); `* |3 z, E1 `/ Q. Y
= 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3
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% k9 D( A, l/ [! W, ?: P/ MConclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
+ L9 `7 q3 j; ~5 Q/ ^; V+ @: Z3 t' l/ ]# {$ u& Y7 ^
[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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