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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n); b, U$ Y8 U* O7 X
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Proof:
/ R* ]# Z( J- y# p* j D% s- i @Let n >1 be an integer
) O( l4 w7 a7 t, nBasis: (n=2)+ M9 {& X4 a7 R% ]' S- w
2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3; i' o4 }3 h5 U T& b
6 X4 r/ n, Z& V$ X9 t9 K$ gInduction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that
) a# y" v1 N0 B2 m n v E* M3 E K^3 – K can by divided by 3.
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' S. k$ m+ |8 M/ w, I% q% Q* T2 iNow, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3
. d+ |; v" p3 p) z0 ?2 wsince we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem
: k. ]3 L8 \0 n# R! T, dThen we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)# B$ r) l' [4 U* |- S
= K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K5 Z6 I+ K- z+ [7 d& p& c. f9 t
= ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K) E5 w! |5 [# H1 X# l
= ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
; g8 m- N6 d( m# x* Y: ?by Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>07 @& u* x! P1 C
So we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
- `6 c4 s, f4 R4 @. \ = 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)+ }8 u/ |9 H' R5 C: t
= 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3
$ {/ K1 _2 I# ?3 j0 m( u% M4 G# _8 \5 d+ A
Conclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
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. o& ]3 M- t8 y, Q U: r0 {[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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