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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)1 ]; K5 W T! Z( y3 V; T$ |* ~
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Proof: v! k# M) f% s" v
Let n >1 be an integer ) ?& |4 s$ e3 K& ?% h
Basis: (n=2)
0 c( B0 O6 ]: \2 ]' U4 B* [" J 2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3, p- W3 U: y D9 ^
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Induction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that2 d! G8 j) H( Q% [; J9 Q3 n1 t
K^3 – K can by divided by 3." f4 p+ x6 F$ G# |+ ^* k
, R P; L W- ]Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3( g3 y7 {! E4 ]
since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem
5 t: o) a1 A9 J+ t% xThen we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)
. e9 O l$ |# y$ N = K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K# t7 p' {$ C+ L/ |7 s
= ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)
. M! `" u/ @+ Z = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
2 S# _0 x! n# U' G( s$ Mby Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0
) w' Y0 N* v! i* FSo we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
: I6 R- a3 C4 l1 a$ a+ c/ D; \ = 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)
) ^6 Q3 \( p; B = 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3+ y1 [" i' o' i2 p
. T& Z5 b$ g' v- iConclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
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[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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