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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)
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Proof:
) J L4 Z4 d+ [7 t+ uLet n >1 be an integer
, x6 @& d1 `. ^% r% g9 UBasis: (n=2)
+ `9 |- K, V' M9 i) O! { 2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3
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6 A, g( u" K$ Q, Y; |! nInduction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that5 A- K8 _3 T1 z
K^3 – K can by divided by 3.
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: x0 Q' H( W) C6 G% J$ DNow, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3, X% M% M, z3 i* p7 F* |2 |
since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem
# g1 s; S* X- R ^8 ^. M4 P/ zThen we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)/ q1 z, x3 r$ M" c. m7 L/ L
= K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K
7 F6 z8 v9 ] i& B {7 U$ h = ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)# _7 q3 G/ b: R3 ?+ Y
= ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)5 R+ S; l( G' Z* ?% E6 A2 |7 K
by Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0/ A3 p# f f) [8 C* x
So we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)# `2 `: I8 C% M' ~2 I' ?
= 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)
I, ^2 e0 a U6 p- o) d = 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3
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Conclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
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\8 k3 t7 A+ O% L$ {0 _* T[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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