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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)( U, f1 c% h6 t" W* C
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Proof:
0 D6 t2 @7 m5 K. ~Let n >1 be an integer
, ]* n) S/ D' H, DBasis: (n=2); F4 E: u5 P; F* q7 ]3 S
2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 38 A) R+ j! z7 I( X
1 y- q+ y+ e6 l) S) a+ p) m( M- n9 B
Induction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that
- o) p* n, B+ Y3 U8 H6 F7 ?8 S K^3 – K can by divided by 3.
6 ^/ k1 }+ M, \& M$ ~( S
8 k7 W9 c# K4 K ^3 BNow, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3
' t1 {' |7 u9 W. _2 Wsince we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem
- B' M# _6 Y( X2 ?5 F! sThen we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1): G x" `5 I+ M5 f0 p
= K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K7 ?6 b- m6 Y8 r4 ]& I. [
= ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)
4 x* X; c3 Y" |- [; e: ~ = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)2 E2 m& F# A+ R2 p0 E7 [1 Q
by Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0) P" ^5 c5 X) ^
So we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
/ j$ R* c/ j5 c/ e" K- u = 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)
$ C( f# U6 e7 \* ?+ Q = 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3
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6 B) V+ b2 m9 u$ e3 {Conclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
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[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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