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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)6 p. v4 W( l9 p4 g j3 B7 K/ h9 c
# R0 H# ?- ]$ [! s0 j6 t) }4 ~( XProof: 4 I' q2 Q0 j- b# b' |& b3 p3 |
Let n >1 be an integer
# k- x1 q z( P: p( pBasis: (n=2)& H' u9 p _% V# q
2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3
7 ^- e0 e+ }+ L; q0 a9 g( b* k% P' r- h4 e; c; A0 b: ]0 L1 y
Induction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that4 q2 P$ T; Z1 U
K^3 – K can by divided by 3.
( T2 H$ v! T1 n' P3 D, r8 a8 s! ?( ~2 `, o2 Q/ `
Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3
% e% ]6 O, m" b# Y6 k5 |9 k6 ], |since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem2 J* r7 x: |7 {) J
Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)
6 [% w0 a0 d, R$ [3 c = K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K7 T* d3 n" b* e* S: ^; e
= ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)+ p1 X( h( g1 W' H( F
= ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
8 S' I* r, J4 W; k, K; Rby Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0
" j6 y) { A7 J8 ?/ JSo we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)( ?* N( e. l; Y5 H9 G. ~9 a4 i
= 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)- X0 y/ E d( U# b* d) C% Q* D; e
= 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3
6 f! C4 l: b+ V( a) Y. ]
, P2 H* v5 N2 n* i$ N/ RConclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
0 L9 k# @, i, {% |6 a f; @# G2 U# t( ^& {% ^4 R
[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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