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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)3 \- i( ^ ~8 p M' [
" i/ n, c, }! oProof:
5 i; ?- F8 A/ ]/ ~- X1 rLet n >1 be an integer
% ~, W% Y1 W" A) K4 Z& w0 JBasis: (n=2)
% [0 k6 K: F2 A% V2 a. |9 D: T8 L, F 2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3. r4 z9 _' y" {4 w+ Y7 ~
& {" z6 ~+ s, ~& K0 S! ?; \Induction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that4 I/ G% J# V" S$ K
K^3 – K can by divided by 3.
, X* ?8 S& v6 M; C! u' w8 |# m# Z2 s) ?% @/ C: {) t6 `/ R
Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 31 l# T3 e2 e [4 Z8 L
since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem% L% M5 b2 c! _ d
Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)" e% R5 h4 Y1 f
= K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K
+ G; G8 d: q1 \5 s! W = ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)
' l& h& W* j, l* e = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)' _1 d, Z9 h) j* z R# X& z8 o
by Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0* i1 ]/ b9 n7 Q+ }% ?
So we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
; [6 p% o) T) a" S: c, H1 I, Y = 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)0 v$ b: P' X$ n- M( m& D1 i
= 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 35 D6 |, o6 h# \) Y& e, B& ]; u
$ _7 z$ F4 R6 W( D3 ?3 PConclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.$ X. j1 ~7 A% O5 k
* _3 G0 }6 m+ z4 u; ?+ P[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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