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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)
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Proof:
$ k$ s% @5 D% w: g, _8 n: I& c6 R) eLet n >1 be an integer 0 ?( x" t8 K3 `5 D+ s4 H3 ?8 @
Basis: (n=2)
( T+ G& A( R# v) h3 G 2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3
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' h, t' p2 H: y" FInduction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that$ ?" m1 m- W% A" T6 d1 ^. d: D
K^3 – K can by divided by 3.
$ x8 [, k& O5 y& i4 B. K% i0 \" M# h7 J) d6 ]* o
Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3
' r; Q9 V1 b! S$ \% ^, u. k% V' |, [since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem9 A' Q0 W* p; W7 K+ P
Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)8 j# b7 G3 `) G& W, U
= K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K
. _; { O8 F& S; { = ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K); M5 V% ^- b X- {
= ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
5 {& S- ~5 ^! s9 [6 hby Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0
/ v3 I* T+ Q) e* o* h+ X# ]( \+ qSo we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K). v4 i( ^' u1 G
= 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)
( O; x! T& t/ Y = 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3$ E! s; m3 ?1 a6 k
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Conclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.7 d! S3 I7 W: b2 g' t! x
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[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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