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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)
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% N7 ?- N3 e9 T2 e$ v' g2 ~% oProof:
' S$ z% I; w2 _- ?2 CLet n >1 be an integer , f4 v i7 Z1 R R3 B, J
Basis: (n=2)2 E+ j: b0 O# m& h6 s$ o6 V
2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3
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) @4 ]0 ~7 ^. x) X$ B" }Induction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that1 y' e8 |) ?! O; Y4 K" t
K^3 – K can by divided by 3.2 `& V/ s% ^% n; ^7 M6 B
- ^: q$ v& K$ g oNow, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3
, V. T9 Q" |+ L) J3 { csince we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem6 v& ]; ~3 m$ X# I2 _9 g
Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)
! H, h# z0 N. u# T = K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K
% m" |2 H8 b" R% \ t8 d) e = ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)9 a: H% k6 h& |
= ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)) [8 ]- I& k* E4 i4 y! k& X2 _: H
by Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0 Z: r4 D! y9 d. p" e4 H! c% B* R
So we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)- j) x% l8 G t4 y
= 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)$ W6 d( R3 G" s' L0 B0 p
= 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3 _9 U, _' b9 K. r# N4 O1 J) E7 S
$ O n' K6 [% U! M. C1 ?+ z; J1 KConclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
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[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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