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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)! p* d; G4 e0 L
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Proof:
% C( H2 f( b: H) U& w4 e5 ^Let n >1 be an integer * |+ i7 u J& Q# v# @: e
Basis: (n=2)
1 N3 h" P+ i n& l' w9 w" O 2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 35 l: p- f, H6 u& T$ D& R
# W8 x5 v+ H p' j/ }Induction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that
" r/ L( g0 d1 x K^3 – K can by divided by 3. d8 I1 B. V/ ~, t- V4 M" `
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Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3
" _# \3 P, U2 @1 |' O7 ysince we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem
s% ~9 p' b/ @7 U# z8 u( H" HThen we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)- [! `' c7 z0 ~8 L
= K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K
+ ]' }( y3 x9 X8 y/ o; n3 Z = ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K). F. V' B3 E( i+ D) k8 x/ A7 a
= ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)% a/ b: I- I& F! Q$ W8 z D
by Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0
: ~: S9 B4 z5 r. `' o, Z: YSo we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
; Q! H- u" U+ S. Q h" [ = 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)
Z# O* B; a. [) } = 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 33 h5 }3 V% Y' R
/ i7 C/ P7 D/ d5 V' Q. FConclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
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6 \' z+ v, t: r) G; @( ?9 R' Z0 L" e[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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